Lok Sewa questions Mastoid air cells

Q.  Basic views for mastoid air cells is/are
A.  Townes view
B.  Right lateral oblique
C.  Left lateral obloque
D.  All

Q.  For lateral oblique view of mastoid region, angle of centering beam is
A.  15° cauded
B.  25° cauded
C.  35° cranial
D.  45° cranial

Q.  The Schuller method is done for 
A.  Petromastoid region 
B.  Mandible 
C.  Paranasal sinuses 
D.  Base of skull

Q.  The centering point for mastoid lateral oblique is
A.  Above Gonion
B.  Behind Inion
C.  5 cm above and 2.5 cm behind EAM
D.  Just at glabella

Q.  For Townes view in mastoid region, CP is at 
A.  Midway between EAM
B.  EAM
C.  EOP
D.  Above glabella

Q.  What is seen within foramen magnum in Townes view? 
A.  Dorsum Sella 
B.  Petrous ridge
C.  EAM 
D.  Nasal spine

Loksewa questions

Q. Waters view is done for
A.  Sagittal sinus
B.  Frontal sinus
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Mastoid air cells

Q.  For maxillary and solenoid sinuses, which view is done.?
A.  Waters View closed mouth
B.  Waters view open mouth 
C.  Caldwell view
D.  Townes view

Q.  Caldwell view is done for 
A.  Frontal sinus
B.  Maxillary sinus
C.  All sinuses
D.  Sphenoid sinus

Q.  In lateral skull view  for sinus, 
A.  Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses seen
B.  Sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses seen
C. Both A and B
D.  Only skull is seen

Q.  What is the basic view for frontal sinus X-ray? 
A.  Caldwell view
B. Waters view
C.  Townes view
D.  Haas method

Q.  What is the centering point for waters view? 
A.  Nasion
B.  Glabellla
C. Acanthion
D.  Symphysis menti 

Q.  What is the centering point for Caldwell view? 
A.  Nasion
B.  Glabellla
C. Acanthion
D.  Symphysis menti

Q.  What is the centering point for skull lateral view for sinuses? 
A.  Upper Outer canthus 
B.  2.5 inch above outer canthus 
C. 5 cm  below  Acanthion
D.  Symphysis menti

Lok Sewa questions

Q. Which view is done for IAM in petrous bone? 

A.  May method 

B.  Stenvers view 

C.  Waters view

D.  Caldwell view

Q.  Stenvers view is done for 

A.  Mastoid air cells

B.  Internal Auditory Meatus 

C.  Optical foramina 

D.  Foramen magnum 

Q. For X-ray examination of petrous bone,  centering point is at

A.  Nasion

B.  Midway between EAM and Inion

C.  Midway between both EAM

D.  Glabella

Lines and landmarks of skull

1. The superior most point in the median sagittal plane of the body is called is

A. Nasion 

B.  Gonion 

C.  Vertex

D.  Gnathion 

2. The point in frontal bone just above the nasion is

A.  Gonion 

B.  Inion 

C.  Glabella 

D.  Menti 

3. Gnathion is the part of 

A.  Frontal bone 

B.  Maxilla 

C.  Mandible 

D.  Occipital bone

4. EOP (External occipital protuberence)  is also called
A.  Gonion
B.  Inon
C.  Gnathion
D.  Acanthion

5. The point at angle of mandible called
A.  Inon
B.  Gonion
C.  Glabella
D.  Bregma

6. Nasion is the point at which
A.  Nasal and frontal bones meet
B.  Nasal and lacrimal bones meet
C.  Frontal and maxilla meet
D.  Both nasal bones depart 

Lok sewa questions

Q.  Which of the following lines joins the orbit and EAM?
a.  Orbitomeatal line
b.  Glabello-alveolar line
c.  Acanthiomeatal line
d.  Mentomeatal line 

lOK SEWA MODEL COMMENT FOR THE EXPAINATION

Model I

1. inflammation of the renal pelvis and the kidney
A. Nephrosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Ureteronephrosis
D.cystitis

2.Nasal septum is made by
A. Nasal bones
B. Sphenoid
C. Vomer
D. Mandible


3. The skull radiography is done PA to
A. Reduce image quality
B. Reduce radiation to eyes
C. Reduce radiation to facial bones
D. Reduce exposure factors


4. Which view is done for the pleural fluid in middle lobe of lungs?
A. Lordotic view
B. Apical view
C. Towne’s view
D. Law’s view


5. Allows diaphragm to move down farther, Small heart shadow, Demonstrates air-fluid levels and Prevents engorgement of pulmonary vessels
A. Chest xray AP
B. Chest xray LAT
C. Supine CXR PA
D. Erect CXR PA


6. Waters view is also called
A. OM view
B. OF view
C. Towne’s view
D. Caldwell’s view




7. The tissue that connects bone to bone called
A. Tendon
B. Ligament
C. Sesamoid
D. Suture




8. Rigid joints between the bones of the skull
A.Fontanelle
B. Condyle
C. Tuberosity
D. Suture

9. The blood cells larger than the red blood cells that fight with infection and diseases
A. RBC
B. WBC
C.Platelets
 D. All

10. The pigment of red blood cells that carry oxygen
A. Erythrocytes
B. RBC
C. Hemoglobin
D. IgE




11. Each kidney is enclosed in a tough fibrous renal capsule. The kidney is divided into:
A. Cortex and Medulla
B. Cortex and Renal pelvis
C. Cortex, Medulla and Ureter
D. Kidney, Ureter and Bladder

12. Hyoid bone
A. Is social and is found in cervical spine
B. Is unsocial is found in wrist
C. Is social and is found in face
D. Is unsocial and is found in neck

13. The largest sesamoid bone is
A. Flabella
B. Patella
C. Pisiform
D. Vomer

14. Of , in and relating to head
A. Cauded
B. Cephalic
C. Superior
D. Inferior

15. where is the stomach located in hypersthenic person?
A. High and vertical
B. High and horizontal
C. low and horizontal
D. low and vertical

16. The most common contrast medium used for radiologic examinations of the gastrointestinal tract is:
A. Barium carbonate
B. Sodium sulphate
C. Barium sulphate
D. Potassium carbonate

17. Which drug may be given to the patient before a double contrast examination of the stomach to relax the GI tract?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. hydrocortisone
D. Test dose

18. Which radiographic contrast medium would be appropriate to use for esophageal radiography if a perforation is suspected?
A. Barium sulphate solution
B. oral iodinated solution
C. Both
D. None

19. When performing a BE, what is the recommended maximum height, above the level of the anus, that the enema bag (contents) should be placed?
A. 24 inch lower than anus
B. less than 24 inch above anus
C. more than 24 inch above anus
D. At the level of anus

20. Which of the following is considered to be a severe reaction to iodinated contrast media?
A. Sneezing
B.Vommiting
C. Altered
D. Anaphylactic shock (hypotension and tachycardia)

21. which one of the following is true.
A. Emergency equipment should be available in IVU procedure room.
B. Medication should be available to treat adverse reactions to iodinated contrast media in IVU Xray room.
C. Both
D. None

22.Nearly all life-threatening reactions to iodinated contrast media occur within how many minutes after injection?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 50

23. Arthrography is
A. radiography of a joint or joints.
B. radiography of spinal cord
C. radiography anus
D. radiography of arthopods

24. How many days after onset of menstruation should a hysterosalpingogram be performed?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 11

25. The most common reason for performing a myelogram is to evaluate for presence of a herniated nucleus pulposa (ruptured disk). True/ False?
A. True
B. False
C. Sometime true
D. Sometime false

26. Into what space is the iodinated contrast medium introduced during myelography?
A. Subdural space
B. Subarachnoid space
C. Ventricles of brain
D. anticubital vein

27. A physical attack on an individual. Any unauthorized physical contact or threat of physical contact. what is it called?
A. Assault
B. Negligence
C. Hospice
D. Code of ethics

28. Purpose and who will perform it, potential benefits, possible risks with or without and opportunity to ask questions. There are under
A. Morality
B. Mortality
C. Informed consent
D. Assault

29. when a radiographer leaves the patient’s hand hanging by the table. what do you call this action?
A. Intentional tort
B. Negligent tort
C. Criminal tort
D. None

30. What is x-ray film composed of ?
A. silver halide crystals emulsified on plastic sheet
B. KBr crystals on plastic sheet
C. silver halide crystals on wood
D. KBr crystals on wood

31.What color is mostly added in x-ray film base?
A. Red color for clear image
B. Blue for less eye strain
C. Yellow color for fast image
D. Green color for less eye strain

32. Subject contrast depends on
A. kVp
B. mAs
C. Radiographic film
D. Density of the body to be radiographed

33. When you increase the kVp, the contrast will
A. decreases
B. Increases
C. remain same
D. first increase then remain same and then decreases.

34. the exposure range in which a film can produce a useful contrast is called
A. Longitude
B. Latitude
C. Exposure factors
D. kvp, mAs and grid

35. What is the benefit of screen film?
A. High exposure
B. Less exposure
C. Fine details
D. Both B and C

36. What do intensifying screens do?
A. Convert light into x-ray
B. Convert light to light
C. convert x-ray into light
D. Convert x-ray into x-ray

37. What are the main chemicals of developer?
A. Phenidone
B. Hydroquinone
C. AgX crystals
D. A and B

38. What is the pH of the developer?
A.10.5
B. 5.5
C. 7
D.pH less

39. Fixer consists of
A. Ammonium thiosulphate
B. Sodium sulphate
C. Alumunium chloride
D. All

40. What is the pH of fixer?
A. 4-5
B.5-7
C.7-8
D.All

41. What makes the anode assembly?
A. Anode and stator
B. Rotor
C. Aand B
D.None

42. Tungsten as target material due to
A. High atomic no.
B. High melting point
C.Heat conductive ability
D. All

43. What can happen if you fail to warm up the tube?
A.Anode crack
B. Anode bending
C. Anode becomes cathode
D. None

44. Stator is located
A. outside glass tube
B. inside glass tube
C. Half inside and half outside
D. None

45. Elements with a higher atomic number will have a ________ k-she'll binding energy.
A. Lower
B. Slightly lower
C. Higher
D. Always same

46. What happens when an x-ray photon passes through body?
A. Can pass through unaffected
B. Can scatter
C.Can absorbed
D. All

47. Probability of photoelectric interactions __________ as the atomic number increases
A. decreases
B.increases
C.remains same
D. no interactions

48. Low kvp causes what type of interactions?
A.,Cohorent
B. photoelectric
C.compton
D. all


 49. B.P. Koirala Memorial Cancer Hospital Act कहिले प्रकासित भएको हो?
A. 2053
B. 2047
C. 2075
D. 2063

50. नेपाल सरकार को कर्मचारी ले नियुक्ति को पहिलो वर्ष लाइ कुन रुपमा लिएको छ ?
A. परिच्छ्यन काल
B. क्या. बि.
C. प. बि.
D. घ. बि.

Sample questions for lok sewa radiography (comment for answers)

1.All of the parts of below belongs to the axial skeleton except

1. Coxal bone
2. Coccyx
3. Atlas  
4. Vomer

   2. The primary function of the large intestine is

1. To breakdown proteins
2. To breakdown fats
3. To breakdown carbohydrates
4. To absorbs liquids

3. The trainglular space between the wall of the thorax and the lateral attachment of the diagphragm is the

1. Angle of Scapula
2. Costophrenic angle
3. Crescent angle
4. Sternal angle

4. Occipital bone connects with atlas with its………..to make atlantoocctipital joint.

1. Condyles
2. Facets
3. Tuberosity
4. Trochanter

5. Spinal cord is protected by

1. Ribs
2. Pelvic girdle
3. Shoulder girdle
4. Vertebral canal

6. Which bone/s is/are found in inner ear

1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Stapes
4. All

7. The root of the nose is formed by

1. Vomer
2. Nasal conchae
3. Nasal bones
4. Maxilla

8. Example of Saddle joint is

1. Joint of Thumb
2. Sternoclavicular joint
3. Both
4. None

9. Inion is

1. Nasion
2. Glabella
3. EOP
4. Gnathion

10. Which is/are the palpation point/s of lower limb

1. Tibial tuberosity
2. Head of fibula
3. Calneal tuberosity
4. All

11. Female pelvis is more

1. Circular
2. Round
3. Oval
4. Triangle

12. Voice box is found  in

1. Pharynx
2. Larynx
3. Oropharynx
4. Oesophagus

13. Which contrast media is nowadays used

1. Ionic low osmolor
2. Ionic high osmolor
3. Non ionic low osmolor
4. Non ionic high osmolor

14. The best radiological procedure to demonstrate peptic ulcer is

1. Endoscopy
2. USG
3. Barium enema
4. MRI

15. OCG is obsolete is because of new radiological examination

1. CT scan
2. RFT
3. Endoscopy
4. Barium enema

16. Which of the following projections require that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed?

1. lateral hand

2. lateral thumb

3. lateral humerus

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

17. Which of the following should not be performed until a transverse fracture of the patella

has been ruled out?

A. AP knee

B. lateral knee

C. axial/tangential patella

D.None

18. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25◦ RPO position and the central ray entering 1-inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

(A) left sacroiliac joint

(B) right sacroiliac joint

(C) left ilium

(D) right ilium

19. With the body in the supine position, the diaphragm moves:

(A) 2 to 4 inches higher than when erect

(B) 2 to 4 inches lower than when erect

(C) 2 to 4 inches inferiorly

(D) unpredictably

20.  Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the:

(A) right main bronchus

(B) left main bronchus

(C) esophagus

(D) proximal stomach

21. Which of the following is (are) important when positioning the patient for a PA projection

of the chest?

1. the patient should be examined erect

2. clavicles should be brought above the apices

3. scapulae should be brought lateral to the lung fields

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

22. Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an

indication of:

(A) pleural effusion

(B) ascites

(C) bronchitis

(D) emphysema

23.The usual preparation for an upper GI series is:

(A) clear fluids 8 hours prior to examination

(B) NPO after midnight

(C) enemas until clear before examination

(D) light breakfast day of the examination

24.During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate:

1. filling of obstructed ureters

2. the renal pelvis

3. the superior calyces

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

25. Some common mild side effects of intravenous administration of water-soluble iodinated

contrast agents include:

1. flushed feeling

2. bitter taste

3. urticaria

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

26.Hysterosalpingograms may be performed for the following reason(s):

1. demonstration of fistulous tracts

2. investigation of infertility

3. demonstration of tubal patency

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

27. How man identifiers do you need to verify a patient?

1. Name and Age
2. Age and Address
3. Address and sex
4. Name and sex

28. “Code of ethics “ says

1. You should always do what you think good.
2. You should always act actively
3. You should always act in a professional manner
4. None

29. Autonomy means

1. Patients do not have the right what they want
2. Patients have the right to do what they want.
3. Radiographer dont have right what they want
4. Radiographers have right what they want

30. A civil wrongdoing  is called

1. Assault
2. Battery
3. Tort
4. Hospice

31. Which statement is correct

1. Its always to pull the patient
2. Its always better to push the patient
3. Its always to leave the patient
4. Its always to hide the patient

32. Which of these use single coated emulsion film?

1. General Radiography
2. Special Radiography
3. Mammography
4. Conventional Tomogrpahy

33.Which of these detemine the contrast of the film?

1. KVP
2. mAS
3. Both
4. None

34. How much  percent is contributed by the intensifying screen to form the image in general radiographic film ?

1. 30%
2. 60%
3. 90%
4. 99%

35. Which of these has high spatial resolution?

1. General radiography
2. CT
3. Mammography
4. MRI

36.What is the main component of the developer?

1. Silver Bromide
2. Gelatin
3. Phosphor
4. Potassium chloride

37. Amount of xrays produced from anode with comparision with heat produced.

1. 1%
2. 99%
3. None
4. Both

38. Air gap technique is used in

1. CT
2. MRI
3. Scaphoid series
4. C-spine lat xray

39. Input phosphor, photocathode and output phosphor are the components of

1. CT
2. MRI
3. USG
4. Fluoroscopy

40. Braking radiation is also called

1. Characteristic radiation
2. Brehmstrahlaung radiation
3. Gamma Radiation
4. Beta Radiation

41. ALARA stands for

1. As level as reasonably anode
2. As low as reasonably achievable
3. As lenear as rising ability
4. An linear an right amplifier

42. Which gives the maximum radiation dose to patient?

1. Photoelectric effect
2. Electron pair
3. Compton
4. Inherent

43. Which of the following is/are the non-stochastic effect of the radiation?

1. Cataracts
2. Skin burn
3. Alopecia
4. All of the above

44.Which of these is/are stochastic effect/s of radiation?

1. Alopecia
2. Skin erythema
3. Carcinoma (induced)
4. Cataracts

45. The xray tube is vacuum because

1. Xrays are produced efficiently
2. Longer tube life
3. Both
4. None

46.Filament is made up of

1. Tungsten with rhenium
2. Thoriated Tungsten
3. Cupper with tungsten
4. Tungsten with rhenium and thorium

47. A supine position of the body with the legs separated, flexed, and supported in raised stirrups used for HSG examination called

1. Trendelenberg position
2. Fowler’s position
3. Lithotomy position
4. Supine position

48. How does filtration affect the radiation dose?

1. by removing some of the soft x-rays
2. By removing some of the hard x-rays
3. By adding some of the soft x-rays
4. By adding some of the hard x-rays

49. When is the radiosensitivity of a developing fetus the greatest?

1. First trimester
2. Second trimester
3. Third trimester
4. First and third trimester

50. नेपाल स्वास्थ्य ऐन २०५३ अनुसार अध्ययन गर्नको लागि कुन कुन बिदा पाइन्छ ?

A. अध्ययन  बिदा

B. असाधारण बिदा

C. क र ख

D. प्रसुती बिदा